What's the derivative of $int_0^x e^{t^2} dt$?











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Let f be a continuous function on the interval $[a, b]$. The function F defined by



$$ mathcal F(x) = int_a^x f(t)dt $$



is continuous on $[a,b]$, differentiable on $(a,b)$ and has derivative



$$mathcal F'(x) = mathcal f(x)$$



My question is the following: What will happen in this case?



$$mathcal H(x) = int_0^x e^{t^2} dt$$



Would the derivative be:



$$mathcal H'(x) = mathcal e^{x^2}$$
or



$$mathcal H'(x) = mathcal e^{x^2}-1$$










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  • Welcome to MSE; please proofread your question before posting, and use the formatting guide to fix this.
    – T. Bongers
    Dec 2 at 23:51








  • 4




    Why would it be $mathcal H'(x) = e^{x^2} - 1$? Where would the $-1$ come from?
    – littleO
    Dec 2 at 23:55










  • $e^{t^2}$ you replace t with x - $e^{t^2}$ you replace t with 0.
    – Ryk
    Dec 2 at 23:58

















up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Let f be a continuous function on the interval $[a, b]$. The function F defined by



$$ mathcal F(x) = int_a^x f(t)dt $$



is continuous on $[a,b]$, differentiable on $(a,b)$ and has derivative



$$mathcal F'(x) = mathcal f(x)$$



My question is the following: What will happen in this case?



$$mathcal H(x) = int_0^x e^{t^2} dt$$



Would the derivative be:



$$mathcal H'(x) = mathcal e^{x^2}$$
or



$$mathcal H'(x) = mathcal e^{x^2}-1$$










share|cite|improve this question
























  • Welcome to MSE; please proofread your question before posting, and use the formatting guide to fix this.
    – T. Bongers
    Dec 2 at 23:51








  • 4




    Why would it be $mathcal H'(x) = e^{x^2} - 1$? Where would the $-1$ come from?
    – littleO
    Dec 2 at 23:55










  • $e^{t^2}$ you replace t with x - $e^{t^2}$ you replace t with 0.
    – Ryk
    Dec 2 at 23:58















up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Let f be a continuous function on the interval $[a, b]$. The function F defined by



$$ mathcal F(x) = int_a^x f(t)dt $$



is continuous on $[a,b]$, differentiable on $(a,b)$ and has derivative



$$mathcal F'(x) = mathcal f(x)$$



My question is the following: What will happen in this case?



$$mathcal H(x) = int_0^x e^{t^2} dt$$



Would the derivative be:



$$mathcal H'(x) = mathcal e^{x^2}$$
or



$$mathcal H'(x) = mathcal e^{x^2}-1$$










share|cite|improve this question















Let f be a continuous function on the interval $[a, b]$. The function F defined by



$$ mathcal F(x) = int_a^x f(t)dt $$



is continuous on $[a,b]$, differentiable on $(a,b)$ and has derivative



$$mathcal F'(x) = mathcal f(x)$$



My question is the following: What will happen in this case?



$$mathcal H(x) = int_0^x e^{t^2} dt$$



Would the derivative be:



$$mathcal H'(x) = mathcal e^{x^2}$$
or



$$mathcal H'(x) = mathcal e^{x^2}-1$$







calculus






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Dec 3 at 8:47









Asaf Karagila

301k32422752




301k32422752










asked Dec 2 at 23:49









Ryk

234




234












  • Welcome to MSE; please proofread your question before posting, and use the formatting guide to fix this.
    – T. Bongers
    Dec 2 at 23:51








  • 4




    Why would it be $mathcal H'(x) = e^{x^2} - 1$? Where would the $-1$ come from?
    – littleO
    Dec 2 at 23:55










  • $e^{t^2}$ you replace t with x - $e^{t^2}$ you replace t with 0.
    – Ryk
    Dec 2 at 23:58




















  • Welcome to MSE; please proofread your question before posting, and use the formatting guide to fix this.
    – T. Bongers
    Dec 2 at 23:51








  • 4




    Why would it be $mathcal H'(x) = e^{x^2} - 1$? Where would the $-1$ come from?
    – littleO
    Dec 2 at 23:55










  • $e^{t^2}$ you replace t with x - $e^{t^2}$ you replace t with 0.
    – Ryk
    Dec 2 at 23:58


















Welcome to MSE; please proofread your question before posting, and use the formatting guide to fix this.
– T. Bongers
Dec 2 at 23:51






Welcome to MSE; please proofread your question before posting, and use the formatting guide to fix this.
– T. Bongers
Dec 2 at 23:51






4




4




Why would it be $mathcal H'(x) = e^{x^2} - 1$? Where would the $-1$ come from?
– littleO
Dec 2 at 23:55




Why would it be $mathcal H'(x) = e^{x^2} - 1$? Where would the $-1$ come from?
– littleO
Dec 2 at 23:55












$e^{t^2}$ you replace t with x - $e^{t^2}$ you replace t with 0.
– Ryk
Dec 2 at 23:58






$e^{t^2}$ you replace t with x - $e^{t^2}$ you replace t with 0.
– Ryk
Dec 2 at 23:58












4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
3
down vote



accepted










If we use the idea in your comment (to the question) then $mathcal{F} '(x) $ should equal $f(x) - f(a) $ and not just $f(x) $ as mentioned in your question. I guess the confusion comes from mixing two parts of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (henceforth referred to as FTC).



Part 1 of FTC deals with an integral of the form $int_{a} ^{x} f(t) , dt$ where the lower limit of integral is a constant $a$ and upper limit $x$ is a variable. This then defines a new function, say $mathcal{F} :[a, b] tomathbb{R} $ via the relation $$mathcal {F} (x) =int_{a} ^{x} f(t) , dttag{1}$$ The goal of part 1 of FTC is to study the properties of this new function $mathcal{F} $ in terms of properties of $f$. And it says that $mathcal{F} $ is continuous on $[a, b] $ and if $f$ is continuous at some $cin[a, b] $ then $mathcal{F} $ is differentiable at $c$ and $mathcal{F} '(c) =f(c) $.



You should notice that the lower limit $a$ does not figure out in conclusion of the theorem. The value $mathcal{F} (x) $ depends on $f, a$ and $x$ but the value $mathcal{F}' (x) $ depends on $f$ and $x$ only.



Part 2 of FTC deals with the evaluation of $int_{a} ^{b} f(x) , dx$ under certain conditions. It assumes that $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[a, b] $ and possesses an anti-derivative $mathcal{F} $ so that $$mathcal{F} '(x) =f(x), forall xin[a, b] $$ and then says that $$int_{a} ^{b} f(x) , dx=mathcal{F} (b) - mathcal {F} (a) tag{2}$$ It is here that both the upper and lower limits of integration play key role and the integral is expressed as difference between the values of the anti-derivative.



Note that the $mathcal{F} $ in both parts of FTC are different and in particular the $mathcal{F} $ in part 1 is not necessarily an anti-derivative of $f$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Very nce as usual! (+1)
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 7:49


















up vote
4
down vote













Note that $F(x+h)= F(x) + int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt$ and for small $h$ we have $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^{x+h} f(x)dt = f(x) h$. Hence we expect $F'(x) = f(x)$.



It is straightforward to make this argument rigorous.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 1




    Very nice (+1).
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:00










  • You said for small $h$ we have $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^{x+h} f(x)dt = f(x) h$ why are you not getting rid of the h from the second integral and say something like this given that h is very small, approaching zero. $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^x f(x)dt = f(x) h$
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:06










  • @Ryk: You are trying to compute the limit as $h to 0$ of ${F(x+h)-F(x) over h}$. The above does is not divided across by $h$.
    – copper.hat
    Dec 3 at 2:32


















up vote
1
down vote













Recall that in general by Leibniz integral rule the following holds



$$F(x)=int_{a(x)}^{b(x)}g(u) duimplies F'(x)=g(b(x))cdot b'(x)-g(a(x))cdot a'(x)$$



therefore



$$mathcal H(x) = int_0^x e^{t^2} dtimplies mathcal H'(x)=e^{x^2}$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • +1, very nice answer. I was not aware about Leibniz integral rule. Maybe I used it many times, but I was not aware that it was due to Leibniz.
    – the_candyman
    Dec 2 at 23:59












  • @the_candyman Thanks, much appreciative! Bye
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:00






  • 3




    That's correct but I feel that's killing a bird with a bazooka. The OP has obviously problems with the application of a simple formula, why would a more general formula be helpful?
    – Taladris
    Dec 3 at 0:00












  • @Taladris Yes you are right but also I want to give a more general reference for more general cases.
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:02






  • 1




    @YiFan Exactly! I think that it is a important reference to keep in mind.All other answers are also very useful to give a full picture for the OP. Bye
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 7:52


















up vote
1
down vote













The simplest when applying a new formula is to identify each component:




Let f be a continuous function on the interval $[a, b]$. The function F defined by



$$F(x) = int_a^x f(t)dt $$



is continuous on $[a,b]$, differentiable on $(a,b)$ and has derivative



$$F'(x) = mathcal f(x)$$




For $H(x) = int_0^x e^{t^2} dt$ we have $a=0$ (lower limit of integration) and $f(t)=e^{t^2}$.



It is also important to check that all conditions of the theorem are satisfied: here, the functions $g(t)=e^{t}$ and $h(t)=t^2$ are continuous on $mathbb R$, so their composition $f=gcirc h$ is continuous on $mathbb R$, hence on $[a,b]$.



Now, we can safely apply the formula: $H'(x) = f(x)=mathcal e^{x^2}$.





Edit: to answer a comment




What would happen if $a$ is not $0$?




Note that the formula depends only on $f$ and its continuity and not really on $a$. For example, consider $H_2(x)=int_1^{x} f(t); dt= int_1^x e^{t^2}; dt$. Then, all of the above applies here and we have



$$H_2'(x) = f(x) = e^{x^2} $$



Wait! Why do the functions $H_2$ and $H_1(x)=int^x_0 f(t); dt$ have the same derivative $f(x)=e^{x^2}$? That's clear when you remark that



$$H_1(x)=int_0^x f(t); dt=int_0^1 f(t); dt + int_1^x f(t); dt= C + H_2(x)$$



where $C=int_0^1 f(t); dt$. Since $C$ is a constant, we have $H_1'(x)=H_2'(x)$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • What happens when a is not zero then ?
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:02










  • Nice and simple approach! (+1)
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:02










  • @Ryk For the general case refer to the link I've given for Leibniz's rule.
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:11










  • Thank you, super approach! @Taladris
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:45










  • @gimusi, I will take a look into it, thank you!
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:46











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4 Answers
4






active

oldest

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4 Answers
4






active

oldest

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

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up vote
3
down vote



accepted










If we use the idea in your comment (to the question) then $mathcal{F} '(x) $ should equal $f(x) - f(a) $ and not just $f(x) $ as mentioned in your question. I guess the confusion comes from mixing two parts of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (henceforth referred to as FTC).



Part 1 of FTC deals with an integral of the form $int_{a} ^{x} f(t) , dt$ where the lower limit of integral is a constant $a$ and upper limit $x$ is a variable. This then defines a new function, say $mathcal{F} :[a, b] tomathbb{R} $ via the relation $$mathcal {F} (x) =int_{a} ^{x} f(t) , dttag{1}$$ The goal of part 1 of FTC is to study the properties of this new function $mathcal{F} $ in terms of properties of $f$. And it says that $mathcal{F} $ is continuous on $[a, b] $ and if $f$ is continuous at some $cin[a, b] $ then $mathcal{F} $ is differentiable at $c$ and $mathcal{F} '(c) =f(c) $.



You should notice that the lower limit $a$ does not figure out in conclusion of the theorem. The value $mathcal{F} (x) $ depends on $f, a$ and $x$ but the value $mathcal{F}' (x) $ depends on $f$ and $x$ only.



Part 2 of FTC deals with the evaluation of $int_{a} ^{b} f(x) , dx$ under certain conditions. It assumes that $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[a, b] $ and possesses an anti-derivative $mathcal{F} $ so that $$mathcal{F} '(x) =f(x), forall xin[a, b] $$ and then says that $$int_{a} ^{b} f(x) , dx=mathcal{F} (b) - mathcal {F} (a) tag{2}$$ It is here that both the upper and lower limits of integration play key role and the integral is expressed as difference between the values of the anti-derivative.



Note that the $mathcal{F} $ in both parts of FTC are different and in particular the $mathcal{F} $ in part 1 is not necessarily an anti-derivative of $f$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Very nce as usual! (+1)
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 7:49















up vote
3
down vote



accepted










If we use the idea in your comment (to the question) then $mathcal{F} '(x) $ should equal $f(x) - f(a) $ and not just $f(x) $ as mentioned in your question. I guess the confusion comes from mixing two parts of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (henceforth referred to as FTC).



Part 1 of FTC deals with an integral of the form $int_{a} ^{x} f(t) , dt$ where the lower limit of integral is a constant $a$ and upper limit $x$ is a variable. This then defines a new function, say $mathcal{F} :[a, b] tomathbb{R} $ via the relation $$mathcal {F} (x) =int_{a} ^{x} f(t) , dttag{1}$$ The goal of part 1 of FTC is to study the properties of this new function $mathcal{F} $ in terms of properties of $f$. And it says that $mathcal{F} $ is continuous on $[a, b] $ and if $f$ is continuous at some $cin[a, b] $ then $mathcal{F} $ is differentiable at $c$ and $mathcal{F} '(c) =f(c) $.



You should notice that the lower limit $a$ does not figure out in conclusion of the theorem. The value $mathcal{F} (x) $ depends on $f, a$ and $x$ but the value $mathcal{F}' (x) $ depends on $f$ and $x$ only.



Part 2 of FTC deals with the evaluation of $int_{a} ^{b} f(x) , dx$ under certain conditions. It assumes that $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[a, b] $ and possesses an anti-derivative $mathcal{F} $ so that $$mathcal{F} '(x) =f(x), forall xin[a, b] $$ and then says that $$int_{a} ^{b} f(x) , dx=mathcal{F} (b) - mathcal {F} (a) tag{2}$$ It is here that both the upper and lower limits of integration play key role and the integral is expressed as difference between the values of the anti-derivative.



Note that the $mathcal{F} $ in both parts of FTC are different and in particular the $mathcal{F} $ in part 1 is not necessarily an anti-derivative of $f$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Very nce as usual! (+1)
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 7:49













up vote
3
down vote



accepted







up vote
3
down vote



accepted






If we use the idea in your comment (to the question) then $mathcal{F} '(x) $ should equal $f(x) - f(a) $ and not just $f(x) $ as mentioned in your question. I guess the confusion comes from mixing two parts of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (henceforth referred to as FTC).



Part 1 of FTC deals with an integral of the form $int_{a} ^{x} f(t) , dt$ where the lower limit of integral is a constant $a$ and upper limit $x$ is a variable. This then defines a new function, say $mathcal{F} :[a, b] tomathbb{R} $ via the relation $$mathcal {F} (x) =int_{a} ^{x} f(t) , dttag{1}$$ The goal of part 1 of FTC is to study the properties of this new function $mathcal{F} $ in terms of properties of $f$. And it says that $mathcal{F} $ is continuous on $[a, b] $ and if $f$ is continuous at some $cin[a, b] $ then $mathcal{F} $ is differentiable at $c$ and $mathcal{F} '(c) =f(c) $.



You should notice that the lower limit $a$ does not figure out in conclusion of the theorem. The value $mathcal{F} (x) $ depends on $f, a$ and $x$ but the value $mathcal{F}' (x) $ depends on $f$ and $x$ only.



Part 2 of FTC deals with the evaluation of $int_{a} ^{b} f(x) , dx$ under certain conditions. It assumes that $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[a, b] $ and possesses an anti-derivative $mathcal{F} $ so that $$mathcal{F} '(x) =f(x), forall xin[a, b] $$ and then says that $$int_{a} ^{b} f(x) , dx=mathcal{F} (b) - mathcal {F} (a) tag{2}$$ It is here that both the upper and lower limits of integration play key role and the integral is expressed as difference between the values of the anti-derivative.



Note that the $mathcal{F} $ in both parts of FTC are different and in particular the $mathcal{F} $ in part 1 is not necessarily an anti-derivative of $f$.






share|cite|improve this answer














If we use the idea in your comment (to the question) then $mathcal{F} '(x) $ should equal $f(x) - f(a) $ and not just $f(x) $ as mentioned in your question. I guess the confusion comes from mixing two parts of the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus (henceforth referred to as FTC).



Part 1 of FTC deals with an integral of the form $int_{a} ^{x} f(t) , dt$ where the lower limit of integral is a constant $a$ and upper limit $x$ is a variable. This then defines a new function, say $mathcal{F} :[a, b] tomathbb{R} $ via the relation $$mathcal {F} (x) =int_{a} ^{x} f(t) , dttag{1}$$ The goal of part 1 of FTC is to study the properties of this new function $mathcal{F} $ in terms of properties of $f$. And it says that $mathcal{F} $ is continuous on $[a, b] $ and if $f$ is continuous at some $cin[a, b] $ then $mathcal{F} $ is differentiable at $c$ and $mathcal{F} '(c) =f(c) $.



You should notice that the lower limit $a$ does not figure out in conclusion of the theorem. The value $mathcal{F} (x) $ depends on $f, a$ and $x$ but the value $mathcal{F}' (x) $ depends on $f$ and $x$ only.



Part 2 of FTC deals with the evaluation of $int_{a} ^{b} f(x) , dx$ under certain conditions. It assumes that $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[a, b] $ and possesses an anti-derivative $mathcal{F} $ so that $$mathcal{F} '(x) =f(x), forall xin[a, b] $$ and then says that $$int_{a} ^{b} f(x) , dx=mathcal{F} (b) - mathcal {F} (a) tag{2}$$ It is here that both the upper and lower limits of integration play key role and the integral is expressed as difference between the values of the anti-derivative.



Note that the $mathcal{F} $ in both parts of FTC are different and in particular the $mathcal{F} $ in part 1 is not necessarily an anti-derivative of $f$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Dec 3 at 1:40

























answered Dec 3 at 1:31









Paramanand Singh

48.6k555156




48.6k555156












  • Very nce as usual! (+1)
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 7:49


















  • Very nce as usual! (+1)
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 7:49
















Very nce as usual! (+1)
– gimusi
Dec 3 at 7:49




Very nce as usual! (+1)
– gimusi
Dec 3 at 7:49










up vote
4
down vote













Note that $F(x+h)= F(x) + int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt$ and for small $h$ we have $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^{x+h} f(x)dt = f(x) h$. Hence we expect $F'(x) = f(x)$.



It is straightforward to make this argument rigorous.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 1




    Very nice (+1).
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:00










  • You said for small $h$ we have $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^{x+h} f(x)dt = f(x) h$ why are you not getting rid of the h from the second integral and say something like this given that h is very small, approaching zero. $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^x f(x)dt = f(x) h$
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:06










  • @Ryk: You are trying to compute the limit as $h to 0$ of ${F(x+h)-F(x) over h}$. The above does is not divided across by $h$.
    – copper.hat
    Dec 3 at 2:32















up vote
4
down vote













Note that $F(x+h)= F(x) + int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt$ and for small $h$ we have $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^{x+h} f(x)dt = f(x) h$. Hence we expect $F'(x) = f(x)$.



It is straightforward to make this argument rigorous.






share|cite|improve this answer

















  • 1




    Very nice (+1).
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:00










  • You said for small $h$ we have $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^{x+h} f(x)dt = f(x) h$ why are you not getting rid of the h from the second integral and say something like this given that h is very small, approaching zero. $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^x f(x)dt = f(x) h$
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:06










  • @Ryk: You are trying to compute the limit as $h to 0$ of ${F(x+h)-F(x) over h}$. The above does is not divided across by $h$.
    – copper.hat
    Dec 3 at 2:32













up vote
4
down vote










up vote
4
down vote









Note that $F(x+h)= F(x) + int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt$ and for small $h$ we have $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^{x+h} f(x)dt = f(x) h$. Hence we expect $F'(x) = f(x)$.



It is straightforward to make this argument rigorous.






share|cite|improve this answer












Note that $F(x+h)= F(x) + int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt$ and for small $h$ we have $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^{x+h} f(x)dt = f(x) h$. Hence we expect $F'(x) = f(x)$.



It is straightforward to make this argument rigorous.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 2 at 23:57









copper.hat

125k559159




125k559159








  • 1




    Very nice (+1).
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:00










  • You said for small $h$ we have $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^{x+h} f(x)dt = f(x) h$ why are you not getting rid of the h from the second integral and say something like this given that h is very small, approaching zero. $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^x f(x)dt = f(x) h$
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:06










  • @Ryk: You are trying to compute the limit as $h to 0$ of ${F(x+h)-F(x) over h}$. The above does is not divided across by $h$.
    – copper.hat
    Dec 3 at 2:32














  • 1




    Very nice (+1).
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:00










  • You said for small $h$ we have $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^{x+h} f(x)dt = f(x) h$ why are you not getting rid of the h from the second integral and say something like this given that h is very small, approaching zero. $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^x f(x)dt = f(x) h$
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:06










  • @Ryk: You are trying to compute the limit as $h to 0$ of ${F(x+h)-F(x) over h}$. The above does is not divided across by $h$.
    – copper.hat
    Dec 3 at 2:32








1




1




Very nice (+1).
– gimusi
Dec 3 at 0:00




Very nice (+1).
– gimusi
Dec 3 at 0:00












You said for small $h$ we have $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^{x+h} f(x)dt = f(x) h$ why are you not getting rid of the h from the second integral and say something like this given that h is very small, approaching zero. $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^x f(x)dt = f(x) h$
– Ryk
Dec 3 at 0:06




You said for small $h$ we have $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^{x+h} f(x)dt = f(x) h$ why are you not getting rid of the h from the second integral and say something like this given that h is very small, approaching zero. $int_x^{x+h} f(t)dt approx int_x^x f(x)dt = f(x) h$
– Ryk
Dec 3 at 0:06












@Ryk: You are trying to compute the limit as $h to 0$ of ${F(x+h)-F(x) over h}$. The above does is not divided across by $h$.
– copper.hat
Dec 3 at 2:32




@Ryk: You are trying to compute the limit as $h to 0$ of ${F(x+h)-F(x) over h}$. The above does is not divided across by $h$.
– copper.hat
Dec 3 at 2:32










up vote
1
down vote













Recall that in general by Leibniz integral rule the following holds



$$F(x)=int_{a(x)}^{b(x)}g(u) duimplies F'(x)=g(b(x))cdot b'(x)-g(a(x))cdot a'(x)$$



therefore



$$mathcal H(x) = int_0^x e^{t^2} dtimplies mathcal H'(x)=e^{x^2}$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • +1, very nice answer. I was not aware about Leibniz integral rule. Maybe I used it many times, but I was not aware that it was due to Leibniz.
    – the_candyman
    Dec 2 at 23:59












  • @the_candyman Thanks, much appreciative! Bye
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:00






  • 3




    That's correct but I feel that's killing a bird with a bazooka. The OP has obviously problems with the application of a simple formula, why would a more general formula be helpful?
    – Taladris
    Dec 3 at 0:00












  • @Taladris Yes you are right but also I want to give a more general reference for more general cases.
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:02






  • 1




    @YiFan Exactly! I think that it is a important reference to keep in mind.All other answers are also very useful to give a full picture for the OP. Bye
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 7:52















up vote
1
down vote













Recall that in general by Leibniz integral rule the following holds



$$F(x)=int_{a(x)}^{b(x)}g(u) duimplies F'(x)=g(b(x))cdot b'(x)-g(a(x))cdot a'(x)$$



therefore



$$mathcal H(x) = int_0^x e^{t^2} dtimplies mathcal H'(x)=e^{x^2}$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • +1, very nice answer. I was not aware about Leibniz integral rule. Maybe I used it many times, but I was not aware that it was due to Leibniz.
    – the_candyman
    Dec 2 at 23:59












  • @the_candyman Thanks, much appreciative! Bye
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:00






  • 3




    That's correct but I feel that's killing a bird with a bazooka. The OP has obviously problems with the application of a simple formula, why would a more general formula be helpful?
    – Taladris
    Dec 3 at 0:00












  • @Taladris Yes you are right but also I want to give a more general reference for more general cases.
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:02






  • 1




    @YiFan Exactly! I think that it is a important reference to keep in mind.All other answers are also very useful to give a full picture for the OP. Bye
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 7:52













up vote
1
down vote










up vote
1
down vote









Recall that in general by Leibniz integral rule the following holds



$$F(x)=int_{a(x)}^{b(x)}g(u) duimplies F'(x)=g(b(x))cdot b'(x)-g(a(x))cdot a'(x)$$



therefore



$$mathcal H(x) = int_0^x e^{t^2} dtimplies mathcal H'(x)=e^{x^2}$$






share|cite|improve this answer












Recall that in general by Leibniz integral rule the following holds



$$F(x)=int_{a(x)}^{b(x)}g(u) duimplies F'(x)=g(b(x))cdot b'(x)-g(a(x))cdot a'(x)$$



therefore



$$mathcal H(x) = int_0^x e^{t^2} dtimplies mathcal H'(x)=e^{x^2}$$







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Dec 2 at 23:51









gimusi

91.9k84495




91.9k84495












  • +1, very nice answer. I was not aware about Leibniz integral rule. Maybe I used it many times, but I was not aware that it was due to Leibniz.
    – the_candyman
    Dec 2 at 23:59












  • @the_candyman Thanks, much appreciative! Bye
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:00






  • 3




    That's correct but I feel that's killing a bird with a bazooka. The OP has obviously problems with the application of a simple formula, why would a more general formula be helpful?
    – Taladris
    Dec 3 at 0:00












  • @Taladris Yes you are right but also I want to give a more general reference for more general cases.
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:02






  • 1




    @YiFan Exactly! I think that it is a important reference to keep in mind.All other answers are also very useful to give a full picture for the OP. Bye
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 7:52


















  • +1, very nice answer. I was not aware about Leibniz integral rule. Maybe I used it many times, but I was not aware that it was due to Leibniz.
    – the_candyman
    Dec 2 at 23:59












  • @the_candyman Thanks, much appreciative! Bye
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:00






  • 3




    That's correct but I feel that's killing a bird with a bazooka. The OP has obviously problems with the application of a simple formula, why would a more general formula be helpful?
    – Taladris
    Dec 3 at 0:00












  • @Taladris Yes you are right but also I want to give a more general reference for more general cases.
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:02






  • 1




    @YiFan Exactly! I think that it is a important reference to keep in mind.All other answers are also very useful to give a full picture for the OP. Bye
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 7:52
















+1, very nice answer. I was not aware about Leibniz integral rule. Maybe I used it many times, but I was not aware that it was due to Leibniz.
– the_candyman
Dec 2 at 23:59






+1, very nice answer. I was not aware about Leibniz integral rule. Maybe I used it many times, but I was not aware that it was due to Leibniz.
– the_candyman
Dec 2 at 23:59














@the_candyman Thanks, much appreciative! Bye
– gimusi
Dec 3 at 0:00




@the_candyman Thanks, much appreciative! Bye
– gimusi
Dec 3 at 0:00




3




3




That's correct but I feel that's killing a bird with a bazooka. The OP has obviously problems with the application of a simple formula, why would a more general formula be helpful?
– Taladris
Dec 3 at 0:00






That's correct but I feel that's killing a bird with a bazooka. The OP has obviously problems with the application of a simple formula, why would a more general formula be helpful?
– Taladris
Dec 3 at 0:00














@Taladris Yes you are right but also I want to give a more general reference for more general cases.
– gimusi
Dec 3 at 0:02




@Taladris Yes you are right but also I want to give a more general reference for more general cases.
– gimusi
Dec 3 at 0:02




1




1




@YiFan Exactly! I think that it is a important reference to keep in mind.All other answers are also very useful to give a full picture for the OP. Bye
– gimusi
Dec 3 at 7:52




@YiFan Exactly! I think that it is a important reference to keep in mind.All other answers are also very useful to give a full picture for the OP. Bye
– gimusi
Dec 3 at 7:52










up vote
1
down vote













The simplest when applying a new formula is to identify each component:




Let f be a continuous function on the interval $[a, b]$. The function F defined by



$$F(x) = int_a^x f(t)dt $$



is continuous on $[a,b]$, differentiable on $(a,b)$ and has derivative



$$F'(x) = mathcal f(x)$$




For $H(x) = int_0^x e^{t^2} dt$ we have $a=0$ (lower limit of integration) and $f(t)=e^{t^2}$.



It is also important to check that all conditions of the theorem are satisfied: here, the functions $g(t)=e^{t}$ and $h(t)=t^2$ are continuous on $mathbb R$, so their composition $f=gcirc h$ is continuous on $mathbb R$, hence on $[a,b]$.



Now, we can safely apply the formula: $H'(x) = f(x)=mathcal e^{x^2}$.





Edit: to answer a comment




What would happen if $a$ is not $0$?




Note that the formula depends only on $f$ and its continuity and not really on $a$. For example, consider $H_2(x)=int_1^{x} f(t); dt= int_1^x e^{t^2}; dt$. Then, all of the above applies here and we have



$$H_2'(x) = f(x) = e^{x^2} $$



Wait! Why do the functions $H_2$ and $H_1(x)=int^x_0 f(t); dt$ have the same derivative $f(x)=e^{x^2}$? That's clear when you remark that



$$H_1(x)=int_0^x f(t); dt=int_0^1 f(t); dt + int_1^x f(t); dt= C + H_2(x)$$



where $C=int_0^1 f(t); dt$. Since $C$ is a constant, we have $H_1'(x)=H_2'(x)$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • What happens when a is not zero then ?
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:02










  • Nice and simple approach! (+1)
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:02










  • @Ryk For the general case refer to the link I've given for Leibniz's rule.
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:11










  • Thank you, super approach! @Taladris
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:45










  • @gimusi, I will take a look into it, thank you!
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:46















up vote
1
down vote













The simplest when applying a new formula is to identify each component:




Let f be a continuous function on the interval $[a, b]$. The function F defined by



$$F(x) = int_a^x f(t)dt $$



is continuous on $[a,b]$, differentiable on $(a,b)$ and has derivative



$$F'(x) = mathcal f(x)$$




For $H(x) = int_0^x e^{t^2} dt$ we have $a=0$ (lower limit of integration) and $f(t)=e^{t^2}$.



It is also important to check that all conditions of the theorem are satisfied: here, the functions $g(t)=e^{t}$ and $h(t)=t^2$ are continuous on $mathbb R$, so their composition $f=gcirc h$ is continuous on $mathbb R$, hence on $[a,b]$.



Now, we can safely apply the formula: $H'(x) = f(x)=mathcal e^{x^2}$.





Edit: to answer a comment




What would happen if $a$ is not $0$?




Note that the formula depends only on $f$ and its continuity and not really on $a$. For example, consider $H_2(x)=int_1^{x} f(t); dt= int_1^x e^{t^2}; dt$. Then, all of the above applies here and we have



$$H_2'(x) = f(x) = e^{x^2} $$



Wait! Why do the functions $H_2$ and $H_1(x)=int^x_0 f(t); dt$ have the same derivative $f(x)=e^{x^2}$? That's clear when you remark that



$$H_1(x)=int_0^x f(t); dt=int_0^1 f(t); dt + int_1^x f(t); dt= C + H_2(x)$$



where $C=int_0^1 f(t); dt$. Since $C$ is a constant, we have $H_1'(x)=H_2'(x)$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • What happens when a is not zero then ?
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:02










  • Nice and simple approach! (+1)
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:02










  • @Ryk For the general case refer to the link I've given for Leibniz's rule.
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:11










  • Thank you, super approach! @Taladris
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:45










  • @gimusi, I will take a look into it, thank you!
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:46













up vote
1
down vote










up vote
1
down vote









The simplest when applying a new formula is to identify each component:




Let f be a continuous function on the interval $[a, b]$. The function F defined by



$$F(x) = int_a^x f(t)dt $$



is continuous on $[a,b]$, differentiable on $(a,b)$ and has derivative



$$F'(x) = mathcal f(x)$$




For $H(x) = int_0^x e^{t^2} dt$ we have $a=0$ (lower limit of integration) and $f(t)=e^{t^2}$.



It is also important to check that all conditions of the theorem are satisfied: here, the functions $g(t)=e^{t}$ and $h(t)=t^2$ are continuous on $mathbb R$, so their composition $f=gcirc h$ is continuous on $mathbb R$, hence on $[a,b]$.



Now, we can safely apply the formula: $H'(x) = f(x)=mathcal e^{x^2}$.





Edit: to answer a comment




What would happen if $a$ is not $0$?




Note that the formula depends only on $f$ and its continuity and not really on $a$. For example, consider $H_2(x)=int_1^{x} f(t); dt= int_1^x e^{t^2}; dt$. Then, all of the above applies here and we have



$$H_2'(x) = f(x) = e^{x^2} $$



Wait! Why do the functions $H_2$ and $H_1(x)=int^x_0 f(t); dt$ have the same derivative $f(x)=e^{x^2}$? That's clear when you remark that



$$H_1(x)=int_0^x f(t); dt=int_0^1 f(t); dt + int_1^x f(t); dt= C + H_2(x)$$



where $C=int_0^1 f(t); dt$. Since $C$ is a constant, we have $H_1'(x)=H_2'(x)$.






share|cite|improve this answer














The simplest when applying a new formula is to identify each component:




Let f be a continuous function on the interval $[a, b]$. The function F defined by



$$F(x) = int_a^x f(t)dt $$



is continuous on $[a,b]$, differentiable on $(a,b)$ and has derivative



$$F'(x) = mathcal f(x)$$




For $H(x) = int_0^x e^{t^2} dt$ we have $a=0$ (lower limit of integration) and $f(t)=e^{t^2}$.



It is also important to check that all conditions of the theorem are satisfied: here, the functions $g(t)=e^{t}$ and $h(t)=t^2$ are continuous on $mathbb R$, so their composition $f=gcirc h$ is continuous on $mathbb R$, hence on $[a,b]$.



Now, we can safely apply the formula: $H'(x) = f(x)=mathcal e^{x^2}$.





Edit: to answer a comment




What would happen if $a$ is not $0$?




Note that the formula depends only on $f$ and its continuity and not really on $a$. For example, consider $H_2(x)=int_1^{x} f(t); dt= int_1^x e^{t^2}; dt$. Then, all of the above applies here and we have



$$H_2'(x) = f(x) = e^{x^2} $$



Wait! Why do the functions $H_2$ and $H_1(x)=int^x_0 f(t); dt$ have the same derivative $f(x)=e^{x^2}$? That's clear when you remark that



$$H_1(x)=int_0^x f(t); dt=int_0^1 f(t); dt + int_1^x f(t); dt= C + H_2(x)$$



where $C=int_0^1 f(t); dt$. Since $C$ is a constant, we have $H_1'(x)=H_2'(x)$.







share|cite|improve this answer














share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Dec 3 at 0:10

























answered Dec 2 at 23:59









Taladris

4,63631832




4,63631832












  • What happens when a is not zero then ?
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:02










  • Nice and simple approach! (+1)
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:02










  • @Ryk For the general case refer to the link I've given for Leibniz's rule.
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:11










  • Thank you, super approach! @Taladris
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:45










  • @gimusi, I will take a look into it, thank you!
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:46


















  • What happens when a is not zero then ?
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:02










  • Nice and simple approach! (+1)
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:02










  • @Ryk For the general case refer to the link I've given for Leibniz's rule.
    – gimusi
    Dec 3 at 0:11










  • Thank you, super approach! @Taladris
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:45










  • @gimusi, I will take a look into it, thank you!
    – Ryk
    Dec 3 at 0:46
















What happens when a is not zero then ?
– Ryk
Dec 3 at 0:02




What happens when a is not zero then ?
– Ryk
Dec 3 at 0:02












Nice and simple approach! (+1)
– gimusi
Dec 3 at 0:02




Nice and simple approach! (+1)
– gimusi
Dec 3 at 0:02












@Ryk For the general case refer to the link I've given for Leibniz's rule.
– gimusi
Dec 3 at 0:11




@Ryk For the general case refer to the link I've given for Leibniz's rule.
– gimusi
Dec 3 at 0:11












Thank you, super approach! @Taladris
– Ryk
Dec 3 at 0:45




Thank you, super approach! @Taladris
– Ryk
Dec 3 at 0:45












@gimusi, I will take a look into it, thank you!
– Ryk
Dec 3 at 0:46




@gimusi, I will take a look into it, thank you!
– Ryk
Dec 3 at 0:46


















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