Bdtyktl

I was watching recently the excellent ChessNetwork commentary of the 5th game of the WCC 2018 between Magnus Carlsen and Fabiano Caruana. The end position is the following:

[FEN "8/5R2/5bp1/3rpk1p/8/4B2P/5PP1/5K2 w - - 0 1"]

There is not much to grip onto on either side for sure, but it doesn't strike me as a draw either. The line I get with Stockfish is not straight forward.

{ [Stockfish 280218 64 POPCNT] 68:+0.00} 1...Ke6 2.Ra7 Rd6 3.Ke2 

hxg4 4.hxg4 Rc6 5.f3 Bd8 6.Rg7 Kf6 7.Rg8 Bb6 8.Bh6 Rd6 9.Rf8+ Ke6 10.

Re8+ Kd5 11.Be3 Bd8 12.f4 exf4 13.Bxf4 Re6+ 14.Rxe6 Kxe6 15.Kd3 Kd5 

16.Ke3 Be7 17.Kd3 Bb4 18.Ke3 Bc5+ 19.Kf3 Be7 20.Be3 Bd8 21.Bf4 Be7 

Is there any simple explanation why this position appears as an obvious draw other than a lack of goals to pursue on both sides?

Computer engines are of little use in positions like this. Still it is a pretty obvious draw, because of:

• equal (and very limited) material


• pawns on the same side of the board


• no weaknesses for either player


• active and safe kings

In order to win this, one would have to win material or promote a pawn, neither of which can be forced.

Some points to consider:

• No passed pawn


• All rook endgames with equal number of pawns in its own half are drawn (I do not know if this is a theorem, but it is almost a theorem).


• One of the players can probably force exchange of bishops and get it to rook endgame with equal number of pawns.


• Both players are 2800+ and it is a classical game, so enough time to think and make the right moves.

EDIT: You can look at the game discussed here, where one side has Rook along with 'a' and 'c' pawns, while the other side just has a rook and the game is still a draw.