Why shouldn't a bank robbery without threats be legal?











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So say a bank robber walks into a bank and hands the teller a note saying simply "please give me $1,000" (or maybe even just verbally saying "I need $1,000 please") and if the teller accepts, which they probably would because they're supposed to comply with the robber, he takes the the money, otherwise if they refuse, he leaves.



How is this different than say people asking for charity donations in the street? He just politely requested money without making any threats.










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  • 23




    Who said that is not legal? Robbery without threats is no robbery. By definition, robbery includes violence, intimidation or the threat of force. The teller doesn't need to comply because a person saying "I need $1,000 please" is not a robber unless they threaten.
    – Greendrake
    2 days ago








  • 32




    The teller thought it was a threat, or wouldn't have given you the money.
    – gnasher729
    2 days ago






  • 10




    @gnasher729 I guess tellers need some objective reason to think that they're being threatened vs asked. Otherwise any silly beggar popped in a bank would be charged with robbery. At the end of the day, "I need $1,000 please" could mean an account holder wishing to withdraw cash.
    – Greendrake
    2 days ago








  • 19




    @Greendrake: if you tell the cashier to give you $1,000 and the cashier does not feel threatened, he will simply say "no".
    – Martin Argerami
    yesterday






  • 10




    @MartinArgerami Actually rather than say no the cashier will probably just ask for your chip card or whatever means of identification the bank otherwise use for their customers.
    – kasperd
    yesterday















up vote
38
down vote

favorite
7












So say a bank robber walks into a bank and hands the teller a note saying simply "please give me $1,000" (or maybe even just verbally saying "I need $1,000 please") and if the teller accepts, which they probably would because they're supposed to comply with the robber, he takes the the money, otherwise if they refuse, he leaves.



How is this different than say people asking for charity donations in the street? He just politely requested money without making any threats.










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  • 23




    Who said that is not legal? Robbery without threats is no robbery. By definition, robbery includes violence, intimidation or the threat of force. The teller doesn't need to comply because a person saying "I need $1,000 please" is not a robber unless they threaten.
    – Greendrake
    2 days ago








  • 32




    The teller thought it was a threat, or wouldn't have given you the money.
    – gnasher729
    2 days ago






  • 10




    @gnasher729 I guess tellers need some objective reason to think that they're being threatened vs asked. Otherwise any silly beggar popped in a bank would be charged with robbery. At the end of the day, "I need $1,000 please" could mean an account holder wishing to withdraw cash.
    – Greendrake
    2 days ago








  • 19




    @Greendrake: if you tell the cashier to give you $1,000 and the cashier does not feel threatened, he will simply say "no".
    – Martin Argerami
    yesterday






  • 10




    @MartinArgerami Actually rather than say no the cashier will probably just ask for your chip card or whatever means of identification the bank otherwise use for their customers.
    – kasperd
    yesterday













up vote
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up vote
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down vote

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7





So say a bank robber walks into a bank and hands the teller a note saying simply "please give me $1,000" (or maybe even just verbally saying "I need $1,000 please") and if the teller accepts, which they probably would because they're supposed to comply with the robber, he takes the the money, otherwise if they refuse, he leaves.



How is this different than say people asking for charity donations in the street? He just politely requested money without making any threats.










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So say a bank robber walks into a bank and hands the teller a note saying simply "please give me $1,000" (or maybe even just verbally saying "I need $1,000 please") and if the teller accepts, which they probably would because they're supposed to comply with the robber, he takes the the money, otherwise if they refuse, he leaves.



How is this different than say people asking for charity donations in the street? He just politely requested money without making any threats.







theft






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edited 2 days ago









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  • 23




    Who said that is not legal? Robbery without threats is no robbery. By definition, robbery includes violence, intimidation or the threat of force. The teller doesn't need to comply because a person saying "I need $1,000 please" is not a robber unless they threaten.
    – Greendrake
    2 days ago








  • 32




    The teller thought it was a threat, or wouldn't have given you the money.
    – gnasher729
    2 days ago






  • 10




    @gnasher729 I guess tellers need some objective reason to think that they're being threatened vs asked. Otherwise any silly beggar popped in a bank would be charged with robbery. At the end of the day, "I need $1,000 please" could mean an account holder wishing to withdraw cash.
    – Greendrake
    2 days ago








  • 19




    @Greendrake: if you tell the cashier to give you $1,000 and the cashier does not feel threatened, he will simply say "no".
    – Martin Argerami
    yesterday






  • 10




    @MartinArgerami Actually rather than say no the cashier will probably just ask for your chip card or whatever means of identification the bank otherwise use for their customers.
    – kasperd
    yesterday














  • 23




    Who said that is not legal? Robbery without threats is no robbery. By definition, robbery includes violence, intimidation or the threat of force. The teller doesn't need to comply because a person saying "I need $1,000 please" is not a robber unless they threaten.
    – Greendrake
    2 days ago








  • 32




    The teller thought it was a threat, or wouldn't have given you the money.
    – gnasher729
    2 days ago






  • 10




    @gnasher729 I guess tellers need some objective reason to think that they're being threatened vs asked. Otherwise any silly beggar popped in a bank would be charged with robbery. At the end of the day, "I need $1,000 please" could mean an account holder wishing to withdraw cash.
    – Greendrake
    2 days ago








  • 19




    @Greendrake: if you tell the cashier to give you $1,000 and the cashier does not feel threatened, he will simply say "no".
    – Martin Argerami
    yesterday






  • 10




    @MartinArgerami Actually rather than say no the cashier will probably just ask for your chip card or whatever means of identification the bank otherwise use for their customers.
    – kasperd
    yesterday








23




23




Who said that is not legal? Robbery without threats is no robbery. By definition, robbery includes violence, intimidation or the threat of force. The teller doesn't need to comply because a person saying "I need $1,000 please" is not a robber unless they threaten.
– Greendrake
2 days ago






Who said that is not legal? Robbery without threats is no robbery. By definition, robbery includes violence, intimidation or the threat of force. The teller doesn't need to comply because a person saying "I need $1,000 please" is not a robber unless they threaten.
– Greendrake
2 days ago






32




32




The teller thought it was a threat, or wouldn't have given you the money.
– gnasher729
2 days ago




The teller thought it was a threat, or wouldn't have given you the money.
– gnasher729
2 days ago




10




10




@gnasher729 I guess tellers need some objective reason to think that they're being threatened vs asked. Otherwise any silly beggar popped in a bank would be charged with robbery. At the end of the day, "I need $1,000 please" could mean an account holder wishing to withdraw cash.
– Greendrake
2 days ago






@gnasher729 I guess tellers need some objective reason to think that they're being threatened vs asked. Otherwise any silly beggar popped in a bank would be charged with robbery. At the end of the day, "I need $1,000 please" could mean an account holder wishing to withdraw cash.
– Greendrake
2 days ago






19




19




@Greendrake: if you tell the cashier to give you $1,000 and the cashier does not feel threatened, he will simply say "no".
– Martin Argerami
yesterday




@Greendrake: if you tell the cashier to give you $1,000 and the cashier does not feel threatened, he will simply say "no".
– Martin Argerami
yesterday




10




10




@MartinArgerami Actually rather than say no the cashier will probably just ask for your chip card or whatever means of identification the bank otherwise use for their customers.
– kasperd
yesterday




@MartinArgerami Actually rather than say no the cashier will probably just ask for your chip card or whatever means of identification the bank otherwise use for their customers.
– kasperd
yesterday










6 Answers
6






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oldest

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up vote
86
down vote













As a concrete example, consider Missouri v. Coleman, where Coleman handed a teller a plastic bag and said "I need you to do me a favor. Put the money in this bag", and later as the manager approached, said "Ma'am, stop where you are and don't move any farther". Coleman was convicted of second degree robbery: but the appeals court found that he had not acted foribly, so his conviction was overturned. Instead, the court entered a conviction for the lesser offense of stealing which is when one




Appropriates property or services of another with the purpose to
deprive him or her thereof, either without his or her consent or by
means of deceit or coercion




The act may also be termed "theft", as in Washington state. The thief is acting deceptively and thereby gaining control over property.






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  • 5




    I think this answer includes the most important point: A court may rule it not being robbery - but it's still a crime: theft.
    – Falco
    14 hours ago






  • 8




    If my church says I need to tithe 10% of my income or go to hell, could I argue that it was stealing by means of deceit - requiring them to prove that their claims were truthful?
    – Rob P.
    10 hours ago






  • 4




    @RobP. IRS guidelines say that documents (for tax purposes etc) acknowledging donations to religious groups should say that "goods or services, if any, that the organization provided in return for the contribution consisted entirely of intangible religious benefits" if that's the case. My church does that for my tithes. You could argue that "not going to hell" is an intangible religious benefit, so there's no deception. Ask a new question if you have further questions.
    – Thunderforge
    8 hours ago








  • 2




    @RobP. First, it would be fraud, not robbery or theft, since they aren't threatening you with immediate violence or taking your stuff without asking, but informing you of a putative state of facts over which they claim to have no control to get you to hand them over voluntarily... Second, It's for the prosecutor to make the case: They must prove that the claim made by the hypothetical churchman was not only not truthful, but was known to be untruthful by the person who made it. If they believe it, it's not fraud.
    – Ben
    7 hours ago


















up vote
44
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Generally, the law would not just look at the robber's literal words, but at how a reasonable person would understand them in context. And it will assume that the robber meant them to be understood in that way. Here, a reasonable person would understand such a note to be a threat of violence, so the law will assume the robber meant it as a threat.



Likewise, a mob boss who tells his associates to "take Joe for a ride" will not be able to avoid prosecution by insisting that he only told them to provide him with a pleasant sightseeing tour.





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  • 3




    Mitchell and Webb did a sketch with a number of expressions similar to your "take Joe for a ride" example: youtube.com/watch?v=U6cake3bwnY
    – kasperd
    yesterday










  • @kasperd Won't think of "light refreshments" the same way again
    – Xen2050
    19 hours ago










  • Or, famously, "wouldn't want anything to happen to it"...
    – Peter A. Schneider
    14 hours ago




















up vote
6
down vote














How is this different than say people asking for charity donations in
the street?




Context is everything.



Obviously, someone asking for charity donations on the street will present themselves as a legal charity, like the Salvation Army, etc. If you meant "charity" in the sense of someone panhandling Panhandling | (Merriam-Webster), most if not all people will take the asking for $1000 as an absurd request and keep walking. It's possible that someone may take offense and the police may deem it an attempt at mugging or stealing, depending on jurisdiction, and see user6726's answer.



But to walk into a bank and ask for $1000, the context is completely different. That's because a bank is where the money is. You don't usually walk into a bank for anything other than a financial transaction, either a legal or an attempted illegal transaction. As the (apocryphal) saying goes, Willie Sutton (Wikipedia) robbed banks "Because that's where the money is".



So while it's possible that a polite bank robber trying to not be aggressive may get away with robbery under a lesser charge, anyone in a bank requesting an illegal withdrawal - by any means - is still a bank robber, and 99% of the time, a jury and judge will see that.






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  • "You don't usually walk into a bank for anything other than a financial transaction" - I find busking & begging far more effective in banks and by cash points. Doing these activities in the cash point however is much less effective.
    – UKMonkey
    9 hours ago


















up vote
2
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You can't have it both ways. Either the person used words that cause the teller to fear that violence will occur if the money isn't given or they didn't. If the former, it's a threat. If the latter, the teller won't give them the money.



If their words caused the teller to give them money because the teller feared violence, and this was the intended result of their words and not totally unexpected, that's the definition of using a threat of force to obtain a thing of value.



The lack of use of force means, of course, that it's not a violent robbery. But if the teller feels threatened, it's a threat. If the teller doesn't, they won't give the person the money.






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  • 1




    @Greendrake Because it is a complex, fact-specific question whether those words would be a threat in the circumstances or not. But what is undeniable is that either they are or they aren't, and my answer covers both cases.
    – David Schwartz
    21 hours ago






  • 2




    @Greendrake For example, suppose someone walks up to you on the street and says, "Please give me your wallet", and you do. Whether or not they committed theft doesn't depend on a complex analysis of the phrase "Please give me your wallet" but an analysis of the facts and circumstances under which they said it and whether that would make someone feel threatened. Was it dark? Was it late? Were they armed? Did they block your path? What tone of voice did they use? And so on. The words alone aren't what gets analyzed.
    – David Schwartz
    20 hours ago








  • 2




    @Greendrake Whatever. Either it is a threat or it isn't. If it's a threat, then the robbery was accomplished by means of a threat. If it isn't a threat, then the person wouldn't feel threatened and wouldn't turn over money. You can't have it both ways -- if you pick words that cause the person to turn over the money because he fears what the robber might do, then you've taken funds by threat. If you don't, then you won't get any money. It's really not complicated.
    – David Schwartz
    19 hours ago






  • 1




    That seems pretty clearly wrong. I don't know of any jurisdiction where guilt turns simply on the words you choose. If you have no intent to cause fear, but happen to be dealing with someone especially fearful, that doesn't by itself expose you to liability. If you try to cause fear but choose words that just happen to fail, you're still facing liability for an attempted robbery.
    – bdb484
    19 hours ago








  • 1




    Whether the teller "feels threatened" (per your last paragraph) doesn't define whether or not there is a threat. It would need to be reasonable for them to feel threatened in the given scenario.
    – JBentley
    8 hours ago




















up vote
1
down vote













Robbery is theft carried out through force or the threat of force. The most important part of your hypothetical is that you're saying the person asks for money without making a threat (and presumably without force).



If that is the case, the person is not a robber and the transaction is not a robbery. It is, like you said, the equivalent of a request for a charitable donation, and it is legal.






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  • 1




    I don't believe this is true. Say I was working in a bank. If someone came into a bank and politely asked to put the money in the bag, I would assume that they are simply trying not to make a scene but will still shoot me dead if I refuse.
    – forest
    yesterday








  • 1




    @forest: your assumption is not enough for a conviction. A court can find "any reasonable person would have taken this as a threat"; but if it doesn't there's no crime.
    – Tim Lymington
    yesterday






  • 2




    @forest There's a difference between saying you need $1,000 (as the OP said) and telling someone to "put the money in the bag," isn't there?
    – bdb484
    yesterday








  • 5




    There seems to be a strange pattern of people disputing the answer because they're imagining facts that are different from what the OP asked about. The question is about merely asking for money, "without threats." If there were elements of fraud or deception, then yes, you'd obviously have to consider those charges. There are no elements of fraud or deception in the hypothetical posed by the question.
    – bdb484
    yesterday






  • 6




    I have to completely disagree. I think the fact that the question is purportedly about robbery has infected your thinking. I'd be willing to bet $1,000 that if I walked into a bank and told the teller, "I need $1,000 please," she would just ask me for my account number. That is exactly what happens in banks, all day long, every single day.
    – bdb484
    23 hours ago




















up vote
-2
down vote













The best way to rob a bank is to own one.



Suppose the bank owner takes money from the bank, without violence or threats thereof.




Why shouldn't a bank robbery without threats be legal?




Because the person committing the illegal act is taking other people's property without their permission. It probably wouldn't be classed as a robbery, but it's still illegal.



Why should it be illegal for someone to come into your house through an unlocked front door and take all your valuables while you're out? The logic is similar.



In the classic film "It's a Wonderful Life," the central conflict comes from protagonist George Bailey misplacing depositor's money. He's in (potential) trouble for a (false but not disprovable) accusation of stealing from the bank's depositors. If you watch that film in the coming holiday season, notice how upset the townspeople are at learning that the money they thought they'd put in the bank for safekeeping might not really be all there or as accessible as they'd hoped. Notice the bank examiner's role, to check for potential issues like this.



Would you be upset if you put money in the bank, and when you went to withdraw it, found that you couldn't do so because the money had been given to someone else who hadn't first deposited or otherwise legitimately "earned" the funds (e.g. through interest or a promotion?) A majority of people would, so they support laws that make this illegal.



Notes: There are also other laws opposing that outcome, such as government-backed deposit insurance, but uses of this take money from the many to compensate for the private enrichment of the few who took those funds, so there is support for laws that attempt to hold those few accountable. Also, due to fractional reserve banking, most banks today don't have enough cash on hand to cover all the deposits, but they are supposed to have assets (like outstanding loans) to cover them.






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    6 Answers
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    6 Answers
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    up vote
    86
    down vote













    As a concrete example, consider Missouri v. Coleman, where Coleman handed a teller a plastic bag and said "I need you to do me a favor. Put the money in this bag", and later as the manager approached, said "Ma'am, stop where you are and don't move any farther". Coleman was convicted of second degree robbery: but the appeals court found that he had not acted foribly, so his conviction was overturned. Instead, the court entered a conviction for the lesser offense of stealing which is when one




    Appropriates property or services of another with the purpose to
    deprive him or her thereof, either without his or her consent or by
    means of deceit or coercion




    The act may also be termed "theft", as in Washington state. The thief is acting deceptively and thereby gaining control over property.






    share|improve this answer

















    • 5




      I think this answer includes the most important point: A court may rule it not being robbery - but it's still a crime: theft.
      – Falco
      14 hours ago






    • 8




      If my church says I need to tithe 10% of my income or go to hell, could I argue that it was stealing by means of deceit - requiring them to prove that their claims were truthful?
      – Rob P.
      10 hours ago






    • 4




      @RobP. IRS guidelines say that documents (for tax purposes etc) acknowledging donations to religious groups should say that "goods or services, if any, that the organization provided in return for the contribution consisted entirely of intangible religious benefits" if that's the case. My church does that for my tithes. You could argue that "not going to hell" is an intangible religious benefit, so there's no deception. Ask a new question if you have further questions.
      – Thunderforge
      8 hours ago








    • 2




      @RobP. First, it would be fraud, not robbery or theft, since they aren't threatening you with immediate violence or taking your stuff without asking, but informing you of a putative state of facts over which they claim to have no control to get you to hand them over voluntarily... Second, It's for the prosecutor to make the case: They must prove that the claim made by the hypothetical churchman was not only not truthful, but was known to be untruthful by the person who made it. If they believe it, it's not fraud.
      – Ben
      7 hours ago















    up vote
    86
    down vote













    As a concrete example, consider Missouri v. Coleman, where Coleman handed a teller a plastic bag and said "I need you to do me a favor. Put the money in this bag", and later as the manager approached, said "Ma'am, stop where you are and don't move any farther". Coleman was convicted of second degree robbery: but the appeals court found that he had not acted foribly, so his conviction was overturned. Instead, the court entered a conviction for the lesser offense of stealing which is when one




    Appropriates property or services of another with the purpose to
    deprive him or her thereof, either without his or her consent or by
    means of deceit or coercion




    The act may also be termed "theft", as in Washington state. The thief is acting deceptively and thereby gaining control over property.






    share|improve this answer

















    • 5




      I think this answer includes the most important point: A court may rule it not being robbery - but it's still a crime: theft.
      – Falco
      14 hours ago






    • 8




      If my church says I need to tithe 10% of my income or go to hell, could I argue that it was stealing by means of deceit - requiring them to prove that their claims were truthful?
      – Rob P.
      10 hours ago






    • 4




      @RobP. IRS guidelines say that documents (for tax purposes etc) acknowledging donations to religious groups should say that "goods or services, if any, that the organization provided in return for the contribution consisted entirely of intangible religious benefits" if that's the case. My church does that for my tithes. You could argue that "not going to hell" is an intangible religious benefit, so there's no deception. Ask a new question if you have further questions.
      – Thunderforge
      8 hours ago








    • 2




      @RobP. First, it would be fraud, not robbery or theft, since they aren't threatening you with immediate violence or taking your stuff without asking, but informing you of a putative state of facts over which they claim to have no control to get you to hand them over voluntarily... Second, It's for the prosecutor to make the case: They must prove that the claim made by the hypothetical churchman was not only not truthful, but was known to be untruthful by the person who made it. If they believe it, it's not fraud.
      – Ben
      7 hours ago













    up vote
    86
    down vote










    up vote
    86
    down vote









    As a concrete example, consider Missouri v. Coleman, where Coleman handed a teller a plastic bag and said "I need you to do me a favor. Put the money in this bag", and later as the manager approached, said "Ma'am, stop where you are and don't move any farther". Coleman was convicted of second degree robbery: but the appeals court found that he had not acted foribly, so his conviction was overturned. Instead, the court entered a conviction for the lesser offense of stealing which is when one




    Appropriates property or services of another with the purpose to
    deprive him or her thereof, either without his or her consent or by
    means of deceit or coercion




    The act may also be termed "theft", as in Washington state. The thief is acting deceptively and thereby gaining control over property.






    share|improve this answer












    As a concrete example, consider Missouri v. Coleman, where Coleman handed a teller a plastic bag and said "I need you to do me a favor. Put the money in this bag", and later as the manager approached, said "Ma'am, stop where you are and don't move any farther". Coleman was convicted of second degree robbery: but the appeals court found that he had not acted foribly, so his conviction was overturned. Instead, the court entered a conviction for the lesser offense of stealing which is when one




    Appropriates property or services of another with the purpose to
    deprive him or her thereof, either without his or her consent or by
    means of deceit or coercion




    The act may also be termed "theft", as in Washington state. The thief is acting deceptively and thereby gaining control over property.







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered 2 days ago









    user6726

    53.7k34592




    53.7k34592








    • 5




      I think this answer includes the most important point: A court may rule it not being robbery - but it's still a crime: theft.
      – Falco
      14 hours ago






    • 8




      If my church says I need to tithe 10% of my income or go to hell, could I argue that it was stealing by means of deceit - requiring them to prove that their claims were truthful?
      – Rob P.
      10 hours ago






    • 4




      @RobP. IRS guidelines say that documents (for tax purposes etc) acknowledging donations to religious groups should say that "goods or services, if any, that the organization provided in return for the contribution consisted entirely of intangible religious benefits" if that's the case. My church does that for my tithes. You could argue that "not going to hell" is an intangible religious benefit, so there's no deception. Ask a new question if you have further questions.
      – Thunderforge
      8 hours ago








    • 2




      @RobP. First, it would be fraud, not robbery or theft, since they aren't threatening you with immediate violence or taking your stuff without asking, but informing you of a putative state of facts over which they claim to have no control to get you to hand them over voluntarily... Second, It's for the prosecutor to make the case: They must prove that the claim made by the hypothetical churchman was not only not truthful, but was known to be untruthful by the person who made it. If they believe it, it's not fraud.
      – Ben
      7 hours ago














    • 5




      I think this answer includes the most important point: A court may rule it not being robbery - but it's still a crime: theft.
      – Falco
      14 hours ago






    • 8




      If my church says I need to tithe 10% of my income or go to hell, could I argue that it was stealing by means of deceit - requiring them to prove that their claims were truthful?
      – Rob P.
      10 hours ago






    • 4




      @RobP. IRS guidelines say that documents (for tax purposes etc) acknowledging donations to religious groups should say that "goods or services, if any, that the organization provided in return for the contribution consisted entirely of intangible religious benefits" if that's the case. My church does that for my tithes. You could argue that "not going to hell" is an intangible religious benefit, so there's no deception. Ask a new question if you have further questions.
      – Thunderforge
      8 hours ago








    • 2




      @RobP. First, it would be fraud, not robbery or theft, since they aren't threatening you with immediate violence or taking your stuff without asking, but informing you of a putative state of facts over which they claim to have no control to get you to hand them over voluntarily... Second, It's for the prosecutor to make the case: They must prove that the claim made by the hypothetical churchman was not only not truthful, but was known to be untruthful by the person who made it. If they believe it, it's not fraud.
      – Ben
      7 hours ago








    5




    5




    I think this answer includes the most important point: A court may rule it not being robbery - but it's still a crime: theft.
    – Falco
    14 hours ago




    I think this answer includes the most important point: A court may rule it not being robbery - but it's still a crime: theft.
    – Falco
    14 hours ago




    8




    8




    If my church says I need to tithe 10% of my income or go to hell, could I argue that it was stealing by means of deceit - requiring them to prove that their claims were truthful?
    – Rob P.
    10 hours ago




    If my church says I need to tithe 10% of my income or go to hell, could I argue that it was stealing by means of deceit - requiring them to prove that their claims were truthful?
    – Rob P.
    10 hours ago




    4




    4




    @RobP. IRS guidelines say that documents (for tax purposes etc) acknowledging donations to religious groups should say that "goods or services, if any, that the organization provided in return for the contribution consisted entirely of intangible religious benefits" if that's the case. My church does that for my tithes. You could argue that "not going to hell" is an intangible religious benefit, so there's no deception. Ask a new question if you have further questions.
    – Thunderforge
    8 hours ago






    @RobP. IRS guidelines say that documents (for tax purposes etc) acknowledging donations to religious groups should say that "goods or services, if any, that the organization provided in return for the contribution consisted entirely of intangible religious benefits" if that's the case. My church does that for my tithes. You could argue that "not going to hell" is an intangible religious benefit, so there's no deception. Ask a new question if you have further questions.
    – Thunderforge
    8 hours ago






    2




    2




    @RobP. First, it would be fraud, not robbery or theft, since they aren't threatening you with immediate violence or taking your stuff without asking, but informing you of a putative state of facts over which they claim to have no control to get you to hand them over voluntarily... Second, It's for the prosecutor to make the case: They must prove that the claim made by the hypothetical churchman was not only not truthful, but was known to be untruthful by the person who made it. If they believe it, it's not fraud.
    – Ben
    7 hours ago




    @RobP. First, it would be fraud, not robbery or theft, since they aren't threatening you with immediate violence or taking your stuff without asking, but informing you of a putative state of facts over which they claim to have no control to get you to hand them over voluntarily... Second, It's for the prosecutor to make the case: They must prove that the claim made by the hypothetical churchman was not only not truthful, but was known to be untruthful by the person who made it. If they believe it, it's not fraud.
    – Ben
    7 hours ago










    up vote
    44
    down vote













    Generally, the law would not just look at the robber's literal words, but at how a reasonable person would understand them in context. And it will assume that the robber meant them to be understood in that way. Here, a reasonable person would understand such a note to be a threat of violence, so the law will assume the robber meant it as a threat.



    Likewise, a mob boss who tells his associates to "take Joe for a ride" will not be able to avoid prosecution by insisting that he only told them to provide him with a pleasant sightseeing tour.





    share

















    • 3




      Mitchell and Webb did a sketch with a number of expressions similar to your "take Joe for a ride" example: youtube.com/watch?v=U6cake3bwnY
      – kasperd
      yesterday










    • @kasperd Won't think of "light refreshments" the same way again
      – Xen2050
      19 hours ago










    • Or, famously, "wouldn't want anything to happen to it"...
      – Peter A. Schneider
      14 hours ago

















    up vote
    44
    down vote













    Generally, the law would not just look at the robber's literal words, but at how a reasonable person would understand them in context. And it will assume that the robber meant them to be understood in that way. Here, a reasonable person would understand such a note to be a threat of violence, so the law will assume the robber meant it as a threat.



    Likewise, a mob boss who tells his associates to "take Joe for a ride" will not be able to avoid prosecution by insisting that he only told them to provide him with a pleasant sightseeing tour.





    share

















    • 3




      Mitchell and Webb did a sketch with a number of expressions similar to your "take Joe for a ride" example: youtube.com/watch?v=U6cake3bwnY
      – kasperd
      yesterday










    • @kasperd Won't think of "light refreshments" the same way again
      – Xen2050
      19 hours ago










    • Or, famously, "wouldn't want anything to happen to it"...
      – Peter A. Schneider
      14 hours ago















    up vote
    44
    down vote










    up vote
    44
    down vote









    Generally, the law would not just look at the robber's literal words, but at how a reasonable person would understand them in context. And it will assume that the robber meant them to be understood in that way. Here, a reasonable person would understand such a note to be a threat of violence, so the law will assume the robber meant it as a threat.



    Likewise, a mob boss who tells his associates to "take Joe for a ride" will not be able to avoid prosecution by insisting that he only told them to provide him with a pleasant sightseeing tour.





    share












    Generally, the law would not just look at the robber's literal words, but at how a reasonable person would understand them in context. And it will assume that the robber meant them to be understood in that way. Here, a reasonable person would understand such a note to be a threat of violence, so the law will assume the robber meant it as a threat.



    Likewise, a mob boss who tells his associates to "take Joe for a ride" will not be able to avoid prosecution by insisting that he only told them to provide him with a pleasant sightseeing tour.






    share











    share


    share










    answered 2 days ago









    Nate Eldredge

    7,4911732




    7,4911732








    • 3




      Mitchell and Webb did a sketch with a number of expressions similar to your "take Joe for a ride" example: youtube.com/watch?v=U6cake3bwnY
      – kasperd
      yesterday










    • @kasperd Won't think of "light refreshments" the same way again
      – Xen2050
      19 hours ago










    • Or, famously, "wouldn't want anything to happen to it"...
      – Peter A. Schneider
      14 hours ago
















    • 3




      Mitchell and Webb did a sketch with a number of expressions similar to your "take Joe for a ride" example: youtube.com/watch?v=U6cake3bwnY
      – kasperd
      yesterday










    • @kasperd Won't think of "light refreshments" the same way again
      – Xen2050
      19 hours ago










    • Or, famously, "wouldn't want anything to happen to it"...
      – Peter A. Schneider
      14 hours ago










    3




    3




    Mitchell and Webb did a sketch with a number of expressions similar to your "take Joe for a ride" example: youtube.com/watch?v=U6cake3bwnY
    – kasperd
    yesterday




    Mitchell and Webb did a sketch with a number of expressions similar to your "take Joe for a ride" example: youtube.com/watch?v=U6cake3bwnY
    – kasperd
    yesterday












    @kasperd Won't think of "light refreshments" the same way again
    – Xen2050
    19 hours ago




    @kasperd Won't think of "light refreshments" the same way again
    – Xen2050
    19 hours ago












    Or, famously, "wouldn't want anything to happen to it"...
    – Peter A. Schneider
    14 hours ago






    Or, famously, "wouldn't want anything to happen to it"...
    – Peter A. Schneider
    14 hours ago












    up vote
    6
    down vote














    How is this different than say people asking for charity donations in
    the street?




    Context is everything.



    Obviously, someone asking for charity donations on the street will present themselves as a legal charity, like the Salvation Army, etc. If you meant "charity" in the sense of someone panhandling Panhandling | (Merriam-Webster), most if not all people will take the asking for $1000 as an absurd request and keep walking. It's possible that someone may take offense and the police may deem it an attempt at mugging or stealing, depending on jurisdiction, and see user6726's answer.



    But to walk into a bank and ask for $1000, the context is completely different. That's because a bank is where the money is. You don't usually walk into a bank for anything other than a financial transaction, either a legal or an attempted illegal transaction. As the (apocryphal) saying goes, Willie Sutton (Wikipedia) robbed banks "Because that's where the money is".



    So while it's possible that a polite bank robber trying to not be aggressive may get away with robbery under a lesser charge, anyone in a bank requesting an illegal withdrawal - by any means - is still a bank robber, and 99% of the time, a jury and judge will see that.






    share|improve this answer























    • "You don't usually walk into a bank for anything other than a financial transaction" - I find busking & begging far more effective in banks and by cash points. Doing these activities in the cash point however is much less effective.
      – UKMonkey
      9 hours ago















    up vote
    6
    down vote














    How is this different than say people asking for charity donations in
    the street?




    Context is everything.



    Obviously, someone asking for charity donations on the street will present themselves as a legal charity, like the Salvation Army, etc. If you meant "charity" in the sense of someone panhandling Panhandling | (Merriam-Webster), most if not all people will take the asking for $1000 as an absurd request and keep walking. It's possible that someone may take offense and the police may deem it an attempt at mugging or stealing, depending on jurisdiction, and see user6726's answer.



    But to walk into a bank and ask for $1000, the context is completely different. That's because a bank is where the money is. You don't usually walk into a bank for anything other than a financial transaction, either a legal or an attempted illegal transaction. As the (apocryphal) saying goes, Willie Sutton (Wikipedia) robbed banks "Because that's where the money is".



    So while it's possible that a polite bank robber trying to not be aggressive may get away with robbery under a lesser charge, anyone in a bank requesting an illegal withdrawal - by any means - is still a bank robber, and 99% of the time, a jury and judge will see that.






    share|improve this answer























    • "You don't usually walk into a bank for anything other than a financial transaction" - I find busking & begging far more effective in banks and by cash points. Doing these activities in the cash point however is much less effective.
      – UKMonkey
      9 hours ago













    up vote
    6
    down vote










    up vote
    6
    down vote










    How is this different than say people asking for charity donations in
    the street?




    Context is everything.



    Obviously, someone asking for charity donations on the street will present themselves as a legal charity, like the Salvation Army, etc. If you meant "charity" in the sense of someone panhandling Panhandling | (Merriam-Webster), most if not all people will take the asking for $1000 as an absurd request and keep walking. It's possible that someone may take offense and the police may deem it an attempt at mugging or stealing, depending on jurisdiction, and see user6726's answer.



    But to walk into a bank and ask for $1000, the context is completely different. That's because a bank is where the money is. You don't usually walk into a bank for anything other than a financial transaction, either a legal or an attempted illegal transaction. As the (apocryphal) saying goes, Willie Sutton (Wikipedia) robbed banks "Because that's where the money is".



    So while it's possible that a polite bank robber trying to not be aggressive may get away with robbery under a lesser charge, anyone in a bank requesting an illegal withdrawal - by any means - is still a bank robber, and 99% of the time, a jury and judge will see that.






    share|improve this answer















    How is this different than say people asking for charity donations in
    the street?




    Context is everything.



    Obviously, someone asking for charity donations on the street will present themselves as a legal charity, like the Salvation Army, etc. If you meant "charity" in the sense of someone panhandling Panhandling | (Merriam-Webster), most if not all people will take the asking for $1000 as an absurd request and keep walking. It's possible that someone may take offense and the police may deem it an attempt at mugging or stealing, depending on jurisdiction, and see user6726's answer.



    But to walk into a bank and ask for $1000, the context is completely different. That's because a bank is where the money is. You don't usually walk into a bank for anything other than a financial transaction, either a legal or an attempted illegal transaction. As the (apocryphal) saying goes, Willie Sutton (Wikipedia) robbed banks "Because that's where the money is".



    So while it's possible that a polite bank robber trying to not be aggressive may get away with robbery under a lesser charge, anyone in a bank requesting an illegal withdrawal - by any means - is still a bank robber, and 99% of the time, a jury and judge will see that.







    share|improve this answer














    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer








    edited yesterday

























    answered yesterday









    BlueDogRanch

    9,23121735




    9,23121735












    • "You don't usually walk into a bank for anything other than a financial transaction" - I find busking & begging far more effective in banks and by cash points. Doing these activities in the cash point however is much less effective.
      – UKMonkey
      9 hours ago


















    • "You don't usually walk into a bank for anything other than a financial transaction" - I find busking & begging far more effective in banks and by cash points. Doing these activities in the cash point however is much less effective.
      – UKMonkey
      9 hours ago
















    "You don't usually walk into a bank for anything other than a financial transaction" - I find busking & begging far more effective in banks and by cash points. Doing these activities in the cash point however is much less effective.
    – UKMonkey
    9 hours ago




    "You don't usually walk into a bank for anything other than a financial transaction" - I find busking & begging far more effective in banks and by cash points. Doing these activities in the cash point however is much less effective.
    – UKMonkey
    9 hours ago










    up vote
    2
    down vote













    You can't have it both ways. Either the person used words that cause the teller to fear that violence will occur if the money isn't given or they didn't. If the former, it's a threat. If the latter, the teller won't give them the money.



    If their words caused the teller to give them money because the teller feared violence, and this was the intended result of their words and not totally unexpected, that's the definition of using a threat of force to obtain a thing of value.



    The lack of use of force means, of course, that it's not a violent robbery. But if the teller feels threatened, it's a threat. If the teller doesn't, they won't give the person the money.






    share|improve this answer

















    • 1




      @Greendrake Because it is a complex, fact-specific question whether those words would be a threat in the circumstances or not. But what is undeniable is that either they are or they aren't, and my answer covers both cases.
      – David Schwartz
      21 hours ago






    • 2




      @Greendrake For example, suppose someone walks up to you on the street and says, "Please give me your wallet", and you do. Whether or not they committed theft doesn't depend on a complex analysis of the phrase "Please give me your wallet" but an analysis of the facts and circumstances under which they said it and whether that would make someone feel threatened. Was it dark? Was it late? Were they armed? Did they block your path? What tone of voice did they use? And so on. The words alone aren't what gets analyzed.
      – David Schwartz
      20 hours ago








    • 2




      @Greendrake Whatever. Either it is a threat or it isn't. If it's a threat, then the robbery was accomplished by means of a threat. If it isn't a threat, then the person wouldn't feel threatened and wouldn't turn over money. You can't have it both ways -- if you pick words that cause the person to turn over the money because he fears what the robber might do, then you've taken funds by threat. If you don't, then you won't get any money. It's really not complicated.
      – David Schwartz
      19 hours ago






    • 1




      That seems pretty clearly wrong. I don't know of any jurisdiction where guilt turns simply on the words you choose. If you have no intent to cause fear, but happen to be dealing with someone especially fearful, that doesn't by itself expose you to liability. If you try to cause fear but choose words that just happen to fail, you're still facing liability for an attempted robbery.
      – bdb484
      19 hours ago








    • 1




      Whether the teller "feels threatened" (per your last paragraph) doesn't define whether or not there is a threat. It would need to be reasonable for them to feel threatened in the given scenario.
      – JBentley
      8 hours ago

















    up vote
    2
    down vote













    You can't have it both ways. Either the person used words that cause the teller to fear that violence will occur if the money isn't given or they didn't. If the former, it's a threat. If the latter, the teller won't give them the money.



    If their words caused the teller to give them money because the teller feared violence, and this was the intended result of their words and not totally unexpected, that's the definition of using a threat of force to obtain a thing of value.



    The lack of use of force means, of course, that it's not a violent robbery. But if the teller feels threatened, it's a threat. If the teller doesn't, they won't give the person the money.






    share|improve this answer

















    • 1




      @Greendrake Because it is a complex, fact-specific question whether those words would be a threat in the circumstances or not. But what is undeniable is that either they are or they aren't, and my answer covers both cases.
      – David Schwartz
      21 hours ago






    • 2




      @Greendrake For example, suppose someone walks up to you on the street and says, "Please give me your wallet", and you do. Whether or not they committed theft doesn't depend on a complex analysis of the phrase "Please give me your wallet" but an analysis of the facts and circumstances under which they said it and whether that would make someone feel threatened. Was it dark? Was it late? Were they armed? Did they block your path? What tone of voice did they use? And so on. The words alone aren't what gets analyzed.
      – David Schwartz
      20 hours ago








    • 2




      @Greendrake Whatever. Either it is a threat or it isn't. If it's a threat, then the robbery was accomplished by means of a threat. If it isn't a threat, then the person wouldn't feel threatened and wouldn't turn over money. You can't have it both ways -- if you pick words that cause the person to turn over the money because he fears what the robber might do, then you've taken funds by threat. If you don't, then you won't get any money. It's really not complicated.
      – David Schwartz
      19 hours ago






    • 1




      That seems pretty clearly wrong. I don't know of any jurisdiction where guilt turns simply on the words you choose. If you have no intent to cause fear, but happen to be dealing with someone especially fearful, that doesn't by itself expose you to liability. If you try to cause fear but choose words that just happen to fail, you're still facing liability for an attempted robbery.
      – bdb484
      19 hours ago








    • 1




      Whether the teller "feels threatened" (per your last paragraph) doesn't define whether or not there is a threat. It would need to be reasonable for them to feel threatened in the given scenario.
      – JBentley
      8 hours ago















    up vote
    2
    down vote










    up vote
    2
    down vote









    You can't have it both ways. Either the person used words that cause the teller to fear that violence will occur if the money isn't given or they didn't. If the former, it's a threat. If the latter, the teller won't give them the money.



    If their words caused the teller to give them money because the teller feared violence, and this was the intended result of their words and not totally unexpected, that's the definition of using a threat of force to obtain a thing of value.



    The lack of use of force means, of course, that it's not a violent robbery. But if the teller feels threatened, it's a threat. If the teller doesn't, they won't give the person the money.






    share|improve this answer












    You can't have it both ways. Either the person used words that cause the teller to fear that violence will occur if the money isn't given or they didn't. If the former, it's a threat. If the latter, the teller won't give them the money.



    If their words caused the teller to give them money because the teller feared violence, and this was the intended result of their words and not totally unexpected, that's the definition of using a threat of force to obtain a thing of value.



    The lack of use of force means, of course, that it's not a violent robbery. But if the teller feels threatened, it's a threat. If the teller doesn't, they won't give the person the money.







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered yesterday









    David Schwartz

    871310




    871310








    • 1




      @Greendrake Because it is a complex, fact-specific question whether those words would be a threat in the circumstances or not. But what is undeniable is that either they are or they aren't, and my answer covers both cases.
      – David Schwartz
      21 hours ago






    • 2




      @Greendrake For example, suppose someone walks up to you on the street and says, "Please give me your wallet", and you do. Whether or not they committed theft doesn't depend on a complex analysis of the phrase "Please give me your wallet" but an analysis of the facts and circumstances under which they said it and whether that would make someone feel threatened. Was it dark? Was it late? Were they armed? Did they block your path? What tone of voice did they use? And so on. The words alone aren't what gets analyzed.
      – David Schwartz
      20 hours ago








    • 2




      @Greendrake Whatever. Either it is a threat or it isn't. If it's a threat, then the robbery was accomplished by means of a threat. If it isn't a threat, then the person wouldn't feel threatened and wouldn't turn over money. You can't have it both ways -- if you pick words that cause the person to turn over the money because he fears what the robber might do, then you've taken funds by threat. If you don't, then you won't get any money. It's really not complicated.
      – David Schwartz
      19 hours ago






    • 1




      That seems pretty clearly wrong. I don't know of any jurisdiction where guilt turns simply on the words you choose. If you have no intent to cause fear, but happen to be dealing with someone especially fearful, that doesn't by itself expose you to liability. If you try to cause fear but choose words that just happen to fail, you're still facing liability for an attempted robbery.
      – bdb484
      19 hours ago








    • 1




      Whether the teller "feels threatened" (per your last paragraph) doesn't define whether or not there is a threat. It would need to be reasonable for them to feel threatened in the given scenario.
      – JBentley
      8 hours ago
















    • 1




      @Greendrake Because it is a complex, fact-specific question whether those words would be a threat in the circumstances or not. But what is undeniable is that either they are or they aren't, and my answer covers both cases.
      – David Schwartz
      21 hours ago






    • 2




      @Greendrake For example, suppose someone walks up to you on the street and says, "Please give me your wallet", and you do. Whether or not they committed theft doesn't depend on a complex analysis of the phrase "Please give me your wallet" but an analysis of the facts and circumstances under which they said it and whether that would make someone feel threatened. Was it dark? Was it late? Were they armed? Did they block your path? What tone of voice did they use? And so on. The words alone aren't what gets analyzed.
      – David Schwartz
      20 hours ago








    • 2




      @Greendrake Whatever. Either it is a threat or it isn't. If it's a threat, then the robbery was accomplished by means of a threat. If it isn't a threat, then the person wouldn't feel threatened and wouldn't turn over money. You can't have it both ways -- if you pick words that cause the person to turn over the money because he fears what the robber might do, then you've taken funds by threat. If you don't, then you won't get any money. It's really not complicated.
      – David Schwartz
      19 hours ago






    • 1




      That seems pretty clearly wrong. I don't know of any jurisdiction where guilt turns simply on the words you choose. If you have no intent to cause fear, but happen to be dealing with someone especially fearful, that doesn't by itself expose you to liability. If you try to cause fear but choose words that just happen to fail, you're still facing liability for an attempted robbery.
      – bdb484
      19 hours ago








    • 1




      Whether the teller "feels threatened" (per your last paragraph) doesn't define whether or not there is a threat. It would need to be reasonable for them to feel threatened in the given scenario.
      – JBentley
      8 hours ago










    1




    1




    @Greendrake Because it is a complex, fact-specific question whether those words would be a threat in the circumstances or not. But what is undeniable is that either they are or they aren't, and my answer covers both cases.
    – David Schwartz
    21 hours ago




    @Greendrake Because it is a complex, fact-specific question whether those words would be a threat in the circumstances or not. But what is undeniable is that either they are or they aren't, and my answer covers both cases.
    – David Schwartz
    21 hours ago




    2




    2




    @Greendrake For example, suppose someone walks up to you on the street and says, "Please give me your wallet", and you do. Whether or not they committed theft doesn't depend on a complex analysis of the phrase "Please give me your wallet" but an analysis of the facts and circumstances under which they said it and whether that would make someone feel threatened. Was it dark? Was it late? Were they armed? Did they block your path? What tone of voice did they use? And so on. The words alone aren't what gets analyzed.
    – David Schwartz
    20 hours ago






    @Greendrake For example, suppose someone walks up to you on the street and says, "Please give me your wallet", and you do. Whether or not they committed theft doesn't depend on a complex analysis of the phrase "Please give me your wallet" but an analysis of the facts and circumstances under which they said it and whether that would make someone feel threatened. Was it dark? Was it late? Were they armed? Did they block your path? What tone of voice did they use? And so on. The words alone aren't what gets analyzed.
    – David Schwartz
    20 hours ago






    2




    2




    @Greendrake Whatever. Either it is a threat or it isn't. If it's a threat, then the robbery was accomplished by means of a threat. If it isn't a threat, then the person wouldn't feel threatened and wouldn't turn over money. You can't have it both ways -- if you pick words that cause the person to turn over the money because he fears what the robber might do, then you've taken funds by threat. If you don't, then you won't get any money. It's really not complicated.
    – David Schwartz
    19 hours ago




    @Greendrake Whatever. Either it is a threat or it isn't. If it's a threat, then the robbery was accomplished by means of a threat. If it isn't a threat, then the person wouldn't feel threatened and wouldn't turn over money. You can't have it both ways -- if you pick words that cause the person to turn over the money because he fears what the robber might do, then you've taken funds by threat. If you don't, then you won't get any money. It's really not complicated.
    – David Schwartz
    19 hours ago




    1




    1




    That seems pretty clearly wrong. I don't know of any jurisdiction where guilt turns simply on the words you choose. If you have no intent to cause fear, but happen to be dealing with someone especially fearful, that doesn't by itself expose you to liability. If you try to cause fear but choose words that just happen to fail, you're still facing liability for an attempted robbery.
    – bdb484
    19 hours ago






    That seems pretty clearly wrong. I don't know of any jurisdiction where guilt turns simply on the words you choose. If you have no intent to cause fear, but happen to be dealing with someone especially fearful, that doesn't by itself expose you to liability. If you try to cause fear but choose words that just happen to fail, you're still facing liability for an attempted robbery.
    – bdb484
    19 hours ago






    1




    1




    Whether the teller "feels threatened" (per your last paragraph) doesn't define whether or not there is a threat. It would need to be reasonable for them to feel threatened in the given scenario.
    – JBentley
    8 hours ago






    Whether the teller "feels threatened" (per your last paragraph) doesn't define whether or not there is a threat. It would need to be reasonable for them to feel threatened in the given scenario.
    – JBentley
    8 hours ago












    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Robbery is theft carried out through force or the threat of force. The most important part of your hypothetical is that you're saying the person asks for money without making a threat (and presumably without force).



    If that is the case, the person is not a robber and the transaction is not a robbery. It is, like you said, the equivalent of a request for a charitable donation, and it is legal.






    share|improve this answer

















    • 1




      I don't believe this is true. Say I was working in a bank. If someone came into a bank and politely asked to put the money in the bag, I would assume that they are simply trying not to make a scene but will still shoot me dead if I refuse.
      – forest
      yesterday








    • 1




      @forest: your assumption is not enough for a conviction. A court can find "any reasonable person would have taken this as a threat"; but if it doesn't there's no crime.
      – Tim Lymington
      yesterday






    • 2




      @forest There's a difference between saying you need $1,000 (as the OP said) and telling someone to "put the money in the bag," isn't there?
      – bdb484
      yesterday








    • 5




      There seems to be a strange pattern of people disputing the answer because they're imagining facts that are different from what the OP asked about. The question is about merely asking for money, "without threats." If there were elements of fraud or deception, then yes, you'd obviously have to consider those charges. There are no elements of fraud or deception in the hypothetical posed by the question.
      – bdb484
      yesterday






    • 6




      I have to completely disagree. I think the fact that the question is purportedly about robbery has infected your thinking. I'd be willing to bet $1,000 that if I walked into a bank and told the teller, "I need $1,000 please," she would just ask me for my account number. That is exactly what happens in banks, all day long, every single day.
      – bdb484
      23 hours ago

















    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Robbery is theft carried out through force or the threat of force. The most important part of your hypothetical is that you're saying the person asks for money without making a threat (and presumably without force).



    If that is the case, the person is not a robber and the transaction is not a robbery. It is, like you said, the equivalent of a request for a charitable donation, and it is legal.






    share|improve this answer

















    • 1




      I don't believe this is true. Say I was working in a bank. If someone came into a bank and politely asked to put the money in the bag, I would assume that they are simply trying not to make a scene but will still shoot me dead if I refuse.
      – forest
      yesterday








    • 1




      @forest: your assumption is not enough for a conviction. A court can find "any reasonable person would have taken this as a threat"; but if it doesn't there's no crime.
      – Tim Lymington
      yesterday






    • 2




      @forest There's a difference between saying you need $1,000 (as the OP said) and telling someone to "put the money in the bag," isn't there?
      – bdb484
      yesterday








    • 5




      There seems to be a strange pattern of people disputing the answer because they're imagining facts that are different from what the OP asked about. The question is about merely asking for money, "without threats." If there were elements of fraud or deception, then yes, you'd obviously have to consider those charges. There are no elements of fraud or deception in the hypothetical posed by the question.
      – bdb484
      yesterday






    • 6




      I have to completely disagree. I think the fact that the question is purportedly about robbery has infected your thinking. I'd be willing to bet $1,000 that if I walked into a bank and told the teller, "I need $1,000 please," she would just ask me for my account number. That is exactly what happens in banks, all day long, every single day.
      – bdb484
      23 hours ago















    up vote
    1
    down vote










    up vote
    1
    down vote









    Robbery is theft carried out through force or the threat of force. The most important part of your hypothetical is that you're saying the person asks for money without making a threat (and presumably without force).



    If that is the case, the person is not a robber and the transaction is not a robbery. It is, like you said, the equivalent of a request for a charitable donation, and it is legal.






    share|improve this answer












    Robbery is theft carried out through force or the threat of force. The most important part of your hypothetical is that you're saying the person asks for money without making a threat (and presumably without force).



    If that is the case, the person is not a robber and the transaction is not a robbery. It is, like you said, the equivalent of a request for a charitable donation, and it is legal.







    share|improve this answer












    share|improve this answer



    share|improve this answer










    answered 2 days ago









    bdb484

    10.1k11539




    10.1k11539








    • 1




      I don't believe this is true. Say I was working in a bank. If someone came into a bank and politely asked to put the money in the bag, I would assume that they are simply trying not to make a scene but will still shoot me dead if I refuse.
      – forest
      yesterday








    • 1




      @forest: your assumption is not enough for a conviction. A court can find "any reasonable person would have taken this as a threat"; but if it doesn't there's no crime.
      – Tim Lymington
      yesterday






    • 2




      @forest There's a difference between saying you need $1,000 (as the OP said) and telling someone to "put the money in the bag," isn't there?
      – bdb484
      yesterday








    • 5




      There seems to be a strange pattern of people disputing the answer because they're imagining facts that are different from what the OP asked about. The question is about merely asking for money, "without threats." If there were elements of fraud or deception, then yes, you'd obviously have to consider those charges. There are no elements of fraud or deception in the hypothetical posed by the question.
      – bdb484
      yesterday






    • 6




      I have to completely disagree. I think the fact that the question is purportedly about robbery has infected your thinking. I'd be willing to bet $1,000 that if I walked into a bank and told the teller, "I need $1,000 please," she would just ask me for my account number. That is exactly what happens in banks, all day long, every single day.
      – bdb484
      23 hours ago
















    • 1




      I don't believe this is true. Say I was working in a bank. If someone came into a bank and politely asked to put the money in the bag, I would assume that they are simply trying not to make a scene but will still shoot me dead if I refuse.
      – forest
      yesterday








    • 1




      @forest: your assumption is not enough for a conviction. A court can find "any reasonable person would have taken this as a threat"; but if it doesn't there's no crime.
      – Tim Lymington
      yesterday






    • 2




      @forest There's a difference between saying you need $1,000 (as the OP said) and telling someone to "put the money in the bag," isn't there?
      – bdb484
      yesterday








    • 5




      There seems to be a strange pattern of people disputing the answer because they're imagining facts that are different from what the OP asked about. The question is about merely asking for money, "without threats." If there were elements of fraud or deception, then yes, you'd obviously have to consider those charges. There are no elements of fraud or deception in the hypothetical posed by the question.
      – bdb484
      yesterday






    • 6




      I have to completely disagree. I think the fact that the question is purportedly about robbery has infected your thinking. I'd be willing to bet $1,000 that if I walked into a bank and told the teller, "I need $1,000 please," she would just ask me for my account number. That is exactly what happens in banks, all day long, every single day.
      – bdb484
      23 hours ago










    1




    1




    I don't believe this is true. Say I was working in a bank. If someone came into a bank and politely asked to put the money in the bag, I would assume that they are simply trying not to make a scene but will still shoot me dead if I refuse.
    – forest
    yesterday






    I don't believe this is true. Say I was working in a bank. If someone came into a bank and politely asked to put the money in the bag, I would assume that they are simply trying not to make a scene but will still shoot me dead if I refuse.
    – forest
    yesterday






    1




    1




    @forest: your assumption is not enough for a conviction. A court can find "any reasonable person would have taken this as a threat"; but if it doesn't there's no crime.
    – Tim Lymington
    yesterday




    @forest: your assumption is not enough for a conviction. A court can find "any reasonable person would have taken this as a threat"; but if it doesn't there's no crime.
    – Tim Lymington
    yesterday




    2




    2




    @forest There's a difference between saying you need $1,000 (as the OP said) and telling someone to "put the money in the bag," isn't there?
    – bdb484
    yesterday






    @forest There's a difference between saying you need $1,000 (as the OP said) and telling someone to "put the money in the bag," isn't there?
    – bdb484
    yesterday






    5




    5




    There seems to be a strange pattern of people disputing the answer because they're imagining facts that are different from what the OP asked about. The question is about merely asking for money, "without threats." If there were elements of fraud or deception, then yes, you'd obviously have to consider those charges. There are no elements of fraud or deception in the hypothetical posed by the question.
    – bdb484
    yesterday




    There seems to be a strange pattern of people disputing the answer because they're imagining facts that are different from what the OP asked about. The question is about merely asking for money, "without threats." If there were elements of fraud or deception, then yes, you'd obviously have to consider those charges. There are no elements of fraud or deception in the hypothetical posed by the question.
    – bdb484
    yesterday




    6




    6




    I have to completely disagree. I think the fact that the question is purportedly about robbery has infected your thinking. I'd be willing to bet $1,000 that if I walked into a bank and told the teller, "I need $1,000 please," she would just ask me for my account number. That is exactly what happens in banks, all day long, every single day.
    – bdb484
    23 hours ago






    I have to completely disagree. I think the fact that the question is purportedly about robbery has infected your thinking. I'd be willing to bet $1,000 that if I walked into a bank and told the teller, "I need $1,000 please," she would just ask me for my account number. That is exactly what happens in banks, all day long, every single day.
    – bdb484
    23 hours ago












    up vote
    -2
    down vote













    The best way to rob a bank is to own one.



    Suppose the bank owner takes money from the bank, without violence or threats thereof.




    Why shouldn't a bank robbery without threats be legal?




    Because the person committing the illegal act is taking other people's property without their permission. It probably wouldn't be classed as a robbery, but it's still illegal.



    Why should it be illegal for someone to come into your house through an unlocked front door and take all your valuables while you're out? The logic is similar.



    In the classic film "It's a Wonderful Life," the central conflict comes from protagonist George Bailey misplacing depositor's money. He's in (potential) trouble for a (false but not disprovable) accusation of stealing from the bank's depositors. If you watch that film in the coming holiday season, notice how upset the townspeople are at learning that the money they thought they'd put in the bank for safekeeping might not really be all there or as accessible as they'd hoped. Notice the bank examiner's role, to check for potential issues like this.



    Would you be upset if you put money in the bank, and when you went to withdraw it, found that you couldn't do so because the money had been given to someone else who hadn't first deposited or otherwise legitimately "earned" the funds (e.g. through interest or a promotion?) A majority of people would, so they support laws that make this illegal.



    Notes: There are also other laws opposing that outcome, such as government-backed deposit insurance, but uses of this take money from the many to compensate for the private enrichment of the few who took those funds, so there is support for laws that attempt to hold those few accountable. Also, due to fractional reserve banking, most banks today don't have enough cash on hand to cover all the deposits, but they are supposed to have assets (like outstanding loans) to cover them.






    share|improve this answer



























      up vote
      -2
      down vote













      The best way to rob a bank is to own one.



      Suppose the bank owner takes money from the bank, without violence or threats thereof.




      Why shouldn't a bank robbery without threats be legal?




      Because the person committing the illegal act is taking other people's property without their permission. It probably wouldn't be classed as a robbery, but it's still illegal.



      Why should it be illegal for someone to come into your house through an unlocked front door and take all your valuables while you're out? The logic is similar.



      In the classic film "It's a Wonderful Life," the central conflict comes from protagonist George Bailey misplacing depositor's money. He's in (potential) trouble for a (false but not disprovable) accusation of stealing from the bank's depositors. If you watch that film in the coming holiday season, notice how upset the townspeople are at learning that the money they thought they'd put in the bank for safekeeping might not really be all there or as accessible as they'd hoped. Notice the bank examiner's role, to check for potential issues like this.



      Would you be upset if you put money in the bank, and when you went to withdraw it, found that you couldn't do so because the money had been given to someone else who hadn't first deposited or otherwise legitimately "earned" the funds (e.g. through interest or a promotion?) A majority of people would, so they support laws that make this illegal.



      Notes: There are also other laws opposing that outcome, such as government-backed deposit insurance, but uses of this take money from the many to compensate for the private enrichment of the few who took those funds, so there is support for laws that attempt to hold those few accountable. Also, due to fractional reserve banking, most banks today don't have enough cash on hand to cover all the deposits, but they are supposed to have assets (like outstanding loans) to cover them.






      share|improve this answer

























        up vote
        -2
        down vote










        up vote
        -2
        down vote









        The best way to rob a bank is to own one.



        Suppose the bank owner takes money from the bank, without violence or threats thereof.




        Why shouldn't a bank robbery without threats be legal?




        Because the person committing the illegal act is taking other people's property without their permission. It probably wouldn't be classed as a robbery, but it's still illegal.



        Why should it be illegal for someone to come into your house through an unlocked front door and take all your valuables while you're out? The logic is similar.



        In the classic film "It's a Wonderful Life," the central conflict comes from protagonist George Bailey misplacing depositor's money. He's in (potential) trouble for a (false but not disprovable) accusation of stealing from the bank's depositors. If you watch that film in the coming holiday season, notice how upset the townspeople are at learning that the money they thought they'd put in the bank for safekeeping might not really be all there or as accessible as they'd hoped. Notice the bank examiner's role, to check for potential issues like this.



        Would you be upset if you put money in the bank, and when you went to withdraw it, found that you couldn't do so because the money had been given to someone else who hadn't first deposited or otherwise legitimately "earned" the funds (e.g. through interest or a promotion?) A majority of people would, so they support laws that make this illegal.



        Notes: There are also other laws opposing that outcome, such as government-backed deposit insurance, but uses of this take money from the many to compensate for the private enrichment of the few who took those funds, so there is support for laws that attempt to hold those few accountable. Also, due to fractional reserve banking, most banks today don't have enough cash on hand to cover all the deposits, but they are supposed to have assets (like outstanding loans) to cover them.






        share|improve this answer














        The best way to rob a bank is to own one.



        Suppose the bank owner takes money from the bank, without violence or threats thereof.




        Why shouldn't a bank robbery without threats be legal?




        Because the person committing the illegal act is taking other people's property without their permission. It probably wouldn't be classed as a robbery, but it's still illegal.



        Why should it be illegal for someone to come into your house through an unlocked front door and take all your valuables while you're out? The logic is similar.



        In the classic film "It's a Wonderful Life," the central conflict comes from protagonist George Bailey misplacing depositor's money. He's in (potential) trouble for a (false but not disprovable) accusation of stealing from the bank's depositors. If you watch that film in the coming holiday season, notice how upset the townspeople are at learning that the money they thought they'd put in the bank for safekeeping might not really be all there or as accessible as they'd hoped. Notice the bank examiner's role, to check for potential issues like this.



        Would you be upset if you put money in the bank, and when you went to withdraw it, found that you couldn't do so because the money had been given to someone else who hadn't first deposited or otherwise legitimately "earned" the funds (e.g. through interest or a promotion?) A majority of people would, so they support laws that make this illegal.



        Notes: There are also other laws opposing that outcome, such as government-backed deposit insurance, but uses of this take money from the many to compensate for the private enrichment of the few who took those funds, so there is support for laws that attempt to hold those few accountable. Also, due to fractional reserve banking, most banks today don't have enough cash on hand to cover all the deposits, but they are supposed to have assets (like outstanding loans) to cover them.







        share|improve this answer














        share|improve this answer



        share|improve this answer








        edited 6 hours ago

























        answered 6 hours ago









        WBT

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